well that was a simple reference toward book statements but it isnt very helpful
actually i was having a problem while solving a question of Adjusted Present Value technique. in this question a company is considering diversifying in to the construction industry.
one para of that question is ;
"the construction industry has an average equity beta of 2.43 and its debt capital can be considered to be virtually risk free and so can be assumed to have a zero beta value. the average gearing (debt:equity) ratio in the industry is 3:4"
now solving this question , as we know for APV we assume that the company is ungeared and so the equity beta is equal to asset beta.
now in the solution of this question asset beta is calculated by using formula
asset beta = equity beta + [E/ E + D(1-t)]
= 2.43 + [4/ 4 + 3 (1-.35) ] tax rate is 35%
asset beta = calculate ur self
where E is market value of equity
D is market value of Debt
t is tax rate
equity beta and debt to equity ratio is taken from the above para and asset beta is calculated then as per the assumption being equal to equity beta it is put in the formula of CAPM to calculate cost of equity i.e.
cost of equtiy =risk free rate +(market rate of return - risk free rate) x equity beta
now this rate is used to discount the operational cash flows related to the project that company is trying to evaluate
my question is that in this question it is mentioned that equity beta is for an industry and you are saying it measures systematic risk of a company, so what does equity beta relates to actually , an individual company or the industry
and asset beta also ??
kindly answer if you can explain, dont just copy paste book lines , i already have a book
thanks