Dear Onyx,
technically, u actually have the answer already.
since for APV question is assuming the company is ungeared and thus we have to find the asset beta of the company by using the equity beta of the industry.
that's why the equity beta of the industry = 2.43, is not equivalent to the asset beta of the company = 3.10.
to avoid confusion, from my understanding (based on my lecturer), using the CAPM formulae should be:
cost of equity (ungeared) = Risk free rate + (market rate of return - risk free rate) x [B]Asset beta
@
cost of equity = risk free rate + (market rate of return - risk free rate ) x equity beta.
note: although for ungeared company, the asset beta equivalent to equity beta, that does not mean that the equity beta of the industry equals to asset beta of the company.
hope this helps!
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